User blog comment:Yuy168/Alternate Government Forms./@comment-3155949-20140115035558

I'm not sure if it's right to apply plutocracy to almost every government. It's absolutely true that those at the head of a government are the rich and powerful, but if that's contributed to by, a byproduct of, or a result of participation in government, does that really count? Unless you're taking this straight from an authoritative source, I wonder if it would instead be better to put plutocracies under the purview of governments that are explicitly tailored for the rich and powerful.